I am modelling a transimpedance amplifier using a 100G feedback resistor with both an LMC6001A and an OPA128 using the PSPICE files provided by TI. Our current design uses the OPA128, and I am considering switching to the LMC6001, so I want to model the differences. (I notice that the format for these two files is slightly different, presumably because they came from two different companies that TI bought: NS & BB respectively). I am using LTSPICE because I know it better than TINA-TI. The two simulations were essentially the same (apart from rail voltage change) but gave significiantly different output offsets with zero input current. The LMC6001A gave -1.65mV and the OPA128 gave -3.06V. Having trimmed back the circuit to its basics, the difference is repeatable changing the definition of the Op Amp back and forth. The cause is easy to trace: the input bias current of the LMC6001A model was around 20fA but for the OPA128 it was 30pA. This seems odd because the datasheet for the OPA128 says the maximum inbut bias current is 150fA at 25C. Is there an error in the model or am I doing something wrong?
P.S. I should have mentioned that since we actually use the OPA128 in a 100G transimpedance amplifier at the moment, I know it behaves as I would expect from the data sheet. The offset at the output when the input current is zero is less than 30mV. When I ask "am I doing something wrong?", I mean am I doing something wrong in modelling the circuit, not am I using this device incorrectly. I would like to get using the OPA128 model right as it helps me optimise the circuit.
PPS there is no tag for the OPA128, presumably because of its NRND status.
