How is this effective loud formula derived, and why is there no magnetizing inductor into this resonant frequency formula?
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How is this effective loud formula derived, and why is there no magnetizing inductor into this resonant frequency formula?
First of all ,thank you for your response, the posts are helpful and I have understood my second question. However, can you tell me where the formula for deriving the effective resistance is in?Thank you.I am looking forward to hearing from you.
Jiujiu,
Please go over slides 4, 5, and 12 of the powerpoints in the link below to understand how this equations are derived.
https://www.ti.com/seclit/ml/slup377/slup377.pdf
Regards,
Sheng-Yang Yu