Part Number: BQ25306
Other Parts Discussed in Thread: BQ25308
Hi,
Can you clarify a few things for me please.
In the PIN descriptions of the datasheet, it says ICHG can be set using a resistor based on this: "Charge current program input. Connect a 1% resistor RICHG from this pin to ground to program the
charge current as ICHG = KICHG / RICHG (KICHG = 40,000)."
So let's say we choose a 100k resistor, that would imply a ICHG of 0.4A, or 400ma. That checks out.
Later on it talks about using a MCU with a PWM to control that pin as well:
"(1V - VPWM) / (RICHG1 + RICHG2). VPWM is the averaged DC voltage of the PWM
output and it must be lower than 1 V. The regulated voltage at the ICHG pin is 1 V"
Let's say RICHG1 is 50k and RCHG2 is 50k, which matches our 100k from before. Let's say we set a duty cycle of 0%, so VPWM is 0 (the pin is basically grounded). Shouldn't that be functionally equivalent to the first scenario, where you have a grounded MCU pin with 100k of resistance? But using the formula we get: ICGH = (1V - 0V) / (100000Ohm) = 1ua.
I feel like there is some disconnect between the two methods as regardless of the units, there is a factor of 4x missing somehow between the two. Is the KICHG missing from the formula? That is, should it read:
ICHG = KICHG * (1V - VPWM) / (RICHG1 + RICHG2) ?
Also, can this MCU PWM method be used with other variants in the same family, such as BQ25308?
Thanks