Hi,experts
I've been studying how to use GPIO interrupt recently.
I want to change the pin AC4 of GPIO0 to general GPIO and use its interrupt on MCU2_0.
But I see the following link saying:
GPIO0 is allocated to A72
Is that true? Does this mean that MCU2_0 or other cores cannot access gpio0?
However, the pins of SPI0 and SPI1 also belong to GPIO0 .
Can only A72 access SPI0 and SPI1?
Best Regards,
Tao


