I have basic questions about the following configuration of an Op-Amp, which is transimpedance amplifier, I would appreciate your help to help me understand this:

First question, considering that the positive input of the Op-Amp is connected to GND, then Op-Amp will try to keep the negative input voltage also to zero(GND), then there is no voltage different in the inputs of the Ap-Amp, so I assume the output voltage should be zero finally, considering the gain will be multiplied by zero but why it is not zero?
I will do my best to answer based on my current knowledge and make an active effort. Please feel free to correct me if I am mistaken.
Considering there is current flow through R1, then there is a voltage across this resistor, so the output voltage will adjust itself in a way that the negative input pin is still zero, so how much this argument is correct? but still how can I justify the previous argument that I made? when there is no potential difference between positive and negative, then the output should be zero?! to be this too contradicts, unless I am missing a critical point here.
I also have plotted the behavior of these signals:

Thanks in advance for your help.
Regards
