Hi team,
One of our customers asked about the 40:1 result calculation process. Can anyone share how it was calculated or explain how it was obtained?
Best Regards,
Amy Luo
This thread has been locked.
If you have a related question, please click the "Ask a related question" button in the top right corner. The newly created question will be automatically linked to this question.
Hi Amy,
Thanks Kai for presenting the application note!
Here is another ppt slides. If you need additional help, please let us know.
5504.OPA188 2-wire analog linearization 09162022.TSC
If this is about the RTD measurement, please also see the link below.
https://static5.arrow.com/pdfs/2013/11/24/3/19/23/744/txn_/manual/slau520.pdf
Best,
Raymond
Hi Amy,
it should be noted that the method of positive feedback is used for the linearization here. You can nicely see this in the schematic shown by Raymond: The positive feddback is provided by R5 which is connected from the output of OPAmp to the +input (!) of OPAmp. I emphasize this here, because it's seldom explained in the appnotes that a positive feedback is used for the linearization.
Positive feedback is highly unusual because in the most linear OPAmp circuits only a negative feedback is used. Negative feedback stabilizes and linearizes a circuit. But positive feedback has the tendency of destabilizing an OPAmp circuit. Happily only a very small dose of positive feedback is necessary here to carry out the linearization and this does not result in stability issues in the very most cases. Nevertheless, the designer should have an eye on eventual stability issues.
There's another OPAmp circuit which uses positive feedback and which is known to have serious stability issues, the "Howland current pump". Howland current pumps have to be very carefully compensated to assure stable performance, especially if the load is complex.
Kai
Hi Amy,
I am going to close this inquiry. If you have additional questions, please let us know.
Best,
Raymond